F Y B Pharm notes

Third year B. Pharmacy notes

MBA Notes 

First Year Diploma Notes

First Year B. Pharmacy Notes 

HAP I/II (All units)

Extra notes

Pharmaceutical Analysis I (All units)

Pharmaceutics 

Unit 1: Notes

A) Introduction to dosage form notes PPT

1) Pharmacopeia PPT

2) Prescription PPT

3) Posology

4) History of Pharmacy 

Unit 2: Notes

A) Calculation 

B) Powders

C) Liquid dosage forms

Unit 2: Notes

Monophasic Liquids

A) Suspension 

Unit 4:

A) Suppositories

B) Pharmaceutical Incompatibility 

Unit 2: Semi-Solid dosage from

Emulsion Notes 

Emulsion PPT

SEM-II: COMPUTER APPLICATION

Second Year B. Pharmacy Notes

Pharmacology 

Physical Pharmacy

Pharmaceutical Engineering 

Final year 

MCQ Set: 50 Questions as part of assignment as per PCI

SET 1 (Q1–Q10)

Pharmacology of Cardiovascular System – Basics, CHF, Antihypertensives

1. Which of the following best describes preload?
a) Resistance against ventricular ejection
b) Volume of blood in ventricles at the end of diastole
c) Pressure during ventricular contraction
d) Heart rate per minute

2. SA node acts as the pacemaker of the heart because:
a) It has fastest conduction
b) It has lowest threshold potential
c) It has highest rate of spontaneous depolarization
d) It is centrally located

3. Digoxin increases cardiac output primarily by:
a) Beta-1 receptor stimulation
b) Increasing sodium excretion
c) Inhibiting Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase
d) Blocking calcium channels

4. Which drug is preferred in acute left ventricular failure?
a) Atenolol
b) Digoxin
c) Furosemide
d) Atorvastatin

5. ACE inhibitors reduce blood pressure by:
a) Blocking renin release
b) Inhibiting angiotensin II formation
c) Increasing calcium influx
d) Blocking beta receptors

6. Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker?
a) Propranolol
b) Nifedipine
c) Captopril
d) Prazosin

7. Nitroglycerin relieves angina mainly by:
a) Increasing contractility
b) Coronary vasoconstriction
c) Venodilation → reducing preload
d) Blocking potassium channels

8. A drug used in variant (Prinzmetal) angina is:
a) Atenolol
b) Amlodipine
c) Nitric oxide
d) Adenosine

9. Amiodarone belongs to which class of antiarrhythmics?
a) Class I
b) Class II
c) Class III
d) Class IV

10. Statins reduce cholesterol mainly by:
a) Inhibiting intestinal fat absorption
b) Inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase
c) Increasing bile acid secretion
d) Blocking chylomicron formation

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SET 2 (Q11–Q20)

CVS Drugs – Shock, Coagulants, Anticoagulants, Fibrinolytics

11. Which drug is most commonly used in anaphylactic shock?
a) Atropine
b) Dopamine
c) Adrenaline
d) Dobutamine

12. Treatment of hypovolemic shock includes:
a) Vasopressin
b) Plasma expanders
c) Antihistamines
d) Digoxin

13. Which of the following is an oral anticoagulant?
a) Heparin
b) Warfarin
c) Streptokinase
d) Protamine

14. Mechanism of action of heparin is:
a) Vitamin K inhibition
b) Direct thrombin activation
c) Activation of antithrombin III
d) Platelet aggregation

15. Streptokinase acts by:
a) Inhibiting fibrin formation
b) Activating plasminogen to plasmin
c) Inhibiting factor Xa
d) Neutralizing thrombin

16. Which drug is an antiplatelet agent?
a) Clopidogrel
b) Heparin
c) Alteplase
d) Folic acid

17. Hematinics include all EXCEPT:
a) Iron
b) Vitamin B12
c) Folic acid
d) Heparin

18. Which drug is used to reverse heparin overdose?
a) Protamine sulfate
b) Vitamin K
c) Warfarin
d) Atropine

19. Dextran is classified as:
a) Anticoagulant
b) Coagulant
c) Plasma volume expander
d) Fibrinolytic agent

20. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation by blocking:
a) COX-1 → ↓TxA₂
b) COX-2 → ↓PGI₂
c) Thrombin
d) Factor VIII

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SET 3 (Q21–Q30)

Diuretics & Antidiuretics

21. Loop diuretics act mainly on:
a) Proximal tubule
b) Distal tubule
c) Loop of Henle (thick ascending limb)
d) Collecting duct

22. Which of the following is a loop diuretic?
a) Mannitol
b) Furosemide
c) Spironolactone
d) Hydrochlorothiazide

23. Thiazide diuretics mainly inhibit:
a) Na⁺/K⁺/2Cl⁻ cotransporter
b) Na⁺/Cl⁻ cotransporter
c) Aldosterone receptors
d) Carbonic anhydrase

24. Spironolactone is a:
a) Potassium-sparing diuretic
b) Loop diuretic
c) Thiazide
d) Osmotic diuretic

25. Which diuretic is preferred in cerebral edema?
a) Mannitol
b) Furosemide
c) Chlorthalidone
d) Spironolactone

26. ADH acts mainly on:
a) Loop of Henle
b) Glomerulus
c) Collecting duct
d) Proximal tubule

27. Vasopressin is used to treat:
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Diabetes insipidus
c) Heart failure
d) Hypertension

28. A diuretic causing hyperkalemia:
a) Furosemide
b) Spironolactone
c) Mannitol
d) Chlorthalidone

29. A side effect of thiazide diuretics is:
a) Hyperuricemia
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Hyperkalemia
d) Bradycardia

30. Conivaptan is classified as:
a) V1 receptor agonist
b) V2 receptor antagonist
c) Beta agonist
d) Aldosterone antagonist

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SET 4 (Q31–Q40)

Autacoids – Histamine, 5-HT, Prostaglandins, Leukotrienes

31. Histamine released from mast cells acts mainly on:
a) H₁ receptors
b) H₂ receptors
c) H₃ receptors
d) H₄ receptors

32. Diphenhydramine belongs to:
a) H₁ antagonist (1st generation)
b) H₂ antagonist
c) Leukotriene blocker
d) Serotonin agonist

33. Serotonin (5-HT) causes:
a) Bronchodilation
b) Vasodilation
c) Platelet aggregation
d) Hypoglycemia

34. Which drug is a 5-HT₃ antagonist?
a) Ondansetron
b) Sumatriptan
c) Ergotamine
d) Loratidine

35. Leukotrienes mainly cause:
a) Bronchodilation
b) Vasodilation
c) Bronchoconstriction
d) Increased urination

36. Misoprostol is a:
a) PGF₂α analogue
b) PGE₁ analogue
c) Leukotriene blocker
d) TXA₂ inhibitor

37. Montelukast acts by blocking:
a) H₁ receptors
b) COX enzymes
c) Leukotriene receptors
d) Serotonin receptors

38. Kallikrein converts:
a) Bradykinin to inactive form
b) Kininogen → bradykinin
c) Angiotensin I → II
d) Prostaglandin → thromboxane

39. Substance P is mainly involved in:
a) Pain transmission
b) Blood coagulation
c) Bronchodilation
d) Platelet activation

40. Which drug is used in acute migraine attacks?
a) Ondansetron
b) Sumatriptan
c) Ranitidine
d) Ketorolac

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SET 5 (Q41–Q50)

NSAIDs, Anti-Gout, Anti-Rheumatic Drugs

41. NSAIDs act primarily by inhibiting:
a) Phosphodiesterase
b) Cyclooxygenase enzymes
c) Renin
d) Bradykinin

42. Which is a selective COX-2 inhibitor?
a) Ibuprofen
b) Naproxen
c) Etoricoxib
d) Aspirin

43. A major adverse effect of NSAIDs is:
a) Hypotension
b) Gastric ulcer
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Cough

44. Allopurinol reduces uric acid by inhibiting:
a) COX-1
b) Xanthine oxidase
c) Renin
d) Lipoxygenase

45. Colchicine is used in:
a) Acute gout
b) Chronic gout
c) Hypertension
d) Arrhythmias

46. Methotrexate is primarily used in:
a) Osteoporosis
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Migraine
d) Peptic ulcer

47. Which drug increases uric acid excretion?
a) Colchicine
b) Allopurinol
c) Probenecid
d) Aspirin (high dose)

48. Aspirin at low doses is used as:
a) Anticoagulant
b) Antiplatelet
c) Antianginal
d) Bronchodilator

49. A DMARD used in rheumatoid arthritis:
a) Paracetamol
b) Methotrexate
c) Ibuprofen
d) Naproxen

50. Indomethacin is used in:
a) Closure of PDA
b) Hypertension
c) Migraine prophylaxis
d) Shock

ANSWER KEY

SET 1 (Q1–Q10)

1. b

2. c

3. c

4. c

5. b

6. b

7. c

8. b

9. c

10. b

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SET 2 (Q11–Q20)

11. c

12. b

13. b

14. c

15. b

16. a

17. d

18. a

19. c

20. a

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SET 3 (Q21–Q30)

21. c

22. b

23. b

24. a

25. a

26. c

27. b

28. b

29. a

30. b

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SET 4 (Q31–Q40)

31. a

32. a

33. c

34. a

35. c

36. b

37. c

38. b

39. a

40. b

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SET 5 (Q41–Q50)

41. b

42. c

43. b

44. b

45. a

46. b

47. c

48. b

49. b

50. a